The “culturally-bound” argument definitely cuts both ways. It also (especially?) applies to the North American/European enlightenment culture, which currently seems to be the only culture going that is so convinced that that traditional teachings on sexuality are so inadequate. We should always be ready to interrogate cultural assumptions–especially our own.

The other bit that should be introduced on the OT side is that women were supposed to refrain from sex until marriage (virginity). An acknowledgment of the inequality of patriarchy could lead you to saying that (1) to be fair men should also or to (2) saying that women need not. The early church picked #1.

No matter where you come down on the liguistic arguments, you must admit that the early church developed a strong ethic of chastity/celibacy outside of marriage and has been fairly consistant about it for many centuries. I personally think that arguments that the context has changed (i.e. no marriage until 30, or many cohabitation arrangments being common law marriages) could be way more persuasive than claiming that the church has been flat out wrong for 1800 years. Tradition should never get the final word; but it definitely deserves the first word.

Mike

START REALLY IMPRESSIVE SOUNDING ACADEMIC QUOTE…
πορνεία should be understood as a general term including all sorts of sexual impurities). It denotes any kind of illegitimate sexual intercourse (cf. BAG, 693; Hauck/Schulz, TDNT 6, 579–95; Reisser, NIDNTT 1, 497–501; this however has been questioned by B. Malina, “Does Porneia Mean Fornication?” NovT 14 [1972] 10–17; note, however, J. Jensen, “Does Porneia Mean Fornication? A Critique of Bruce Malina.” NovT 20 [1978]: 161–84, who argues that the term and its cognates in the NT describe wanton sexual behavior including fornication) and the word-group was employed in the LXX (rendering the Hebrew zānâh) to denote unchastity, harlotry, prostitution and fornication (Gen 34:31, 38:15; Lev 19:29; Deut 22:21). In later rabbinic literature, zenût…. (= πορνεία) was understood as including not only prostitution and any kind of extramarital sexual intercourse (&˒Abot…; 2:8) but also all marriages between relatives forbidden by rabbinic law (cf. Str-B 2, 729, 730). Incest (Test Rub 1:6; Test Jud 13:6; cf. Lev 18:6–18) and all kinds of unnatural sexual intercourse (e.g. Test Ben 9:1) were regarded as fornication (πορνεία). One who surrenders to it indicates ultimately that he has broken with God (Wisd 14:27, 28; cf. Reisser, NIDNTT 1, 499).

O’Brien, P. T. (2002). Vol. 44: Word Biblical Commentary : Colossians-Philemon. Word Biblical Commentary (181). Dallas: Word, Incorporated.
(NovT = the journal ‘Novum testamentum’)

BTW to Mike re: winner’s book– good suggestion for sure; karen sloan recommended it to me and I have been perusing it, but I will mention that I think she goes a bit far at some points.

Defining “fornication” as “sex outside marriage” is a modern phenomenon. Having a problem with men having sex outside marriage (as long as it isn’t with someone else’s spouse or with a prostitute) is also a modern phenomenon, as the OT laws about adultery demonstrate. Make no mistake, I’m certainly in favor of equal treatment for men and women, but we’re looking at the OT and NT assumptions at the moment.

The Septuagint translates zanah as porneia. Zanah refers to sex with prostitutes and to adultery. (That much I remember for sure from studying Hosea. It could be that zanah also means sex outside of marriage in other situations.) Technically speaking, adultery and prostitution are sex outside of marriage, but there are further problems with both, obviously. The LXX also uses porneia as a metaphor for idolatry, in analogies in which God is the husband of Israel, thus it’s probably closer in meaning to adultery than to anything else. In 1 Cor. 5.1 porneia refers to son-stepmother incest. There is also a more specific word for adultery, moicheia.

And if we’re looking for lexical definitions, my Thayer says “illicit sexual intercourse in general.”

In sum, you can only claim that porneia means “sex outside of marriage between 2 people who otherwise could be married” (ie not incest, prostitution or adultery) if you assume ahead of time that “sex outside of marriage between 2 people who otherwise could be married” is illicit.

And that’s assuming the conclusion.

It can sometimes refer to cultic prostitution rather than ‘fornication’, but inserting that meaning into most verses doesn’t make a lot of sense from context. Look at Hebrews 13:4 for example. The three lexicons I checked all state that ‘fornication’ is the primary definition.

I’m so glad you did the studying. I kept asking my husband, Brian, “It’s not in there is it? Sex before marriage isn’t strictly prohibited is it?” And neither one of us could think of anything or find much…. Faithfulness is important, of course…a beautiful Christian concept.

I see the whole chastity thing as a way to be exclusive without having to take responsibility for saying that we do not want “them” in the pulpit. It saddens me. We should wear our colors and our stripes.